I read an article on CNN's "Belief Blog" today that was titled "My take: What the Bible really says about homosexuality" (link: http://religion.blogs.cnn.com/2012/05/15/my-take-what-the-bible-really-says-about-homosexuality/). In his article, the author (Daniel A. Helminiak) argues that in no place does the Bible condemn acting upon homosexual feelings as a sin, but in fact - the author argues - the Bible is condones such action.
As I read the article I was extremely surprised at how the author contorted the Biblical text to fit his own view. In a pompous tone he declares, "Taken on its own terms, read in the original languages, placed back into its historical context, the Bible is ho-hum on homosexuality". Instantly he attempts to set himself up above his audience, because he has "read [the Bible] in the original languages", and thus claims to know a better interpretation of it. Unfortunately, throughout his article, he routinely quotes scriptures out of context, thus depriving the readers of an opportunity for educated discussion.
Although I hope to not harbor any prejudices against homosexual persons and that this post is not taken to be an attack of those who are homosexual, the Bible is extremely clear in its language regarding homosexual conduct, and for one to argue that it is "ho-hum on homosexuality" is dishonest, misleading, uneducated - and even laughable.
One of the first scriptures the author quotes in order to support his argument is Romans 1:26-27. The author argues that there is a translational issue with the word "unnatural", and that the Greek origin bears the meaning "atypical" or "unusual" - and thus is less condemnatory. He then quotes Romans 11:24 which uses this same word, but in a different context, as an example of why it should not be thought of as a condemnatory adjective.
The author, however, failed to read the original passage in its context. Regardless of whether the original Greek word should be translated as "unnatural", "atypical", or "unusual" the apostle Paul is still clear on the issue.
Paul begins his discourse in verse 18 of the same chapter (Romans 1), declaring that "the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men" (Romans 1:18). Paul then specifically targets (in verse 18 and 19) those people who have had the truth of the gospel revealed unto them, but yet refuse to follow its principles. Starting in verse 22, he begins to to elencate things that these people have done that fall under the umbrella of "ungodliness and unrighteousness" which he referred to in verse 18. Paul mentions that they "changed the glory of...God into an image" (23), "dishonoured their bodies between themselves" (24), "changed the truth of God into a lie" (25), and harbored many "vile affections" (26). Among these vile affections, Paul insists, is that "women did change the natural use into that which is against nature; And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another" (26 - 27). Paul clearly states that those who chose to engage in these homosexual acts would fall under the condemnation proclaimed in verse 18. Paul finishes his discourse saying that those who have known the gospel, but yet still do these things "[know] the judgment of God" (32).
Clearly Mr. Helminiak, the author of the CNN article, manipulated the context of verses 26 and 27 to his own liking, completely forgetting the subject of Paul's entire discourse. The author thinks that simply because one word in the aforesaid verses means something different in the context of Romans 11:24, that surely it cannot have any condemnatory connotation in Paul's discourse of Romans 1. It is clear to most readers, however, that many words in any language can be used in a variety of contexts and with different connotations. Simply because the word "unnatural" is used in one context in Romans 11:24, does not mean that it will hold the same context in all of Paul's writings - especially when Paul exciplicitly outlines the subject of his Romans 1 discourse several verses beforehand.
The author then attempts to make an outlandish argument using Matthew 5:28 to say that because "Jesus rejected the purity requirements of the Jewish Law", homosexual acts must be sanctioned by God. He ignores the fact that Christ didn't lower the bar - he raised it. Matthew 5:28 isn't about homosexuality specifically - but rather about sexual morality in general. The Savior raises the bar by saying that simply looking upon a woman with lust is committing adultery in one's heart. In no way would this cancel a law given in Leviticus 18:22 regarding homosexuality as the author attempts to argue, but rather it would raise the bar.
The author also fails to mention the other scriptures by the apostle Paul which make explicit mention of homosexuality. In an epistle to the Corinthians, Paul states: "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not decieved: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind." (1 Corinthians 6:9). Later, in a letter to Timothy, Paul states that the purpose of the gospel law is to help those who are "lawless and disobedient". He then goes on to explicitly point out "them that defile themselves with mankind" (1 Timothy 1:10) among other people.
The language of Paul cannot be more clear. He himself glorified in the plainness of his speech, saying: "Seeing then that we have such hope, we use great plainness of speech" (2 Corinthians 3:12). Paul then follows that statement by saying, "[But we] have renounced hidden things of dishonesty, not walking in craftiness, nor handling the word of God deceitfully" (2 Corithinians 4:2). Paul made every effort to preach the word of God clearly and honestly as he received it, and his writings are very clear on what the law of the gospel is.
The author of the article also made claim that the Bible in no way claims that the homosexual acts of the Sodomites were considered sin, but rather that the Bible focuses on their other acts (pride, greed, injustice, etc). Although I have not focused my discussion on this topic, it is enough for the reader to be pointed to Deuteronomy 23:17 and Jude 1:7 to find verses that explicity relate to the sins of homosexual acts in Sodom.
Finally, it is clear the author of the CNN article has done the opposite of what Paul advised, and "[handled] the word of God deceitfully". He has taken verses out of their proper context and distorted the clear meaning of Paul's epistles in an effort to deceive Christians into thinking that the Bible says something other than it actually says.
The doctrine of the Bible is clear. The Lord established a law of chastity, and according to this law sexual relations are to be held within marriage. Anything outside of this, whether heterosexual or homosexual, is against the said law.
"O then, my beloved brethren, come unto the Lord, the Holy One. Remember that his paths are righteous. Behold, the way for man is narrow, but it lieth in a straight course before him, and the keeper of the gate is the Holy One of Israel; and he employeth no servant there; and there is none other way save it be by the gate; for he cannot be deceived, for the Lord God is his name." (2 Nephi 9:41)